OK, this information is second-hand, so I can't vouch for it entirely, but here's the situation and question:

In the Sunday 15-inning Mets vs. Braves game, the score was tied in the bottom of the 15th, at 3-3, until the Mets hit the game-winning bases-loaded home run. Normally, this would add 4 runs, and the final score would be 7-3. However, because the teams and crowd ran onto the field, only 1 Mets player actually crossed home plate, resulting in a final official score of 4-3. The Mets still won, however...

I was told the LV sportsbooks posted the over/under total-runs on the game at 7 1/2. Based on the official score, the "unders" won, with a total of 7. On any other night, all 4 players would have scored on the final grand slam, and the "overs" would have won with a total-runs of 10.

If the over/under (7 1/2) information is correct, did the sportsbooks pay the unders?? If so, the "over" betters really had a bad-beat!!