"as it does NOT look to me like he/she was a)chip passing or b)chip harvesting."

How did you reach that conclusion?

I can't imagine any reason for this player putting chips into his pocket in this event except either to cheat or collect a few souveniors.

Sure its possible he's a complete moron who bought into a $10,000 tournament with no clue of basic poker tournament rules who ignored repeated warnings depending on what time this happened it is possible he received no warnings, but I hear this announcement made repeatedly throught the day). And doesn't have enough common sense to understand why this would be a problem.